We used to pay our mortage in person at a local (M&T) bank down the street. A few years ago, we got notice in the mail that CitiMortage had purchased our loan, I assume through what we all know now is called the "bundling" process.
We were given no advance notice of the change, nor did we sign any papers with CitiMortage. We did however, continue to make the payments, of course, not wanting to lose our home.
The other day I called Citi to see if we could get our interest rate lowered as we are still paying 8 3/4 %!!! I though this would be no problem as interest rates have been lowered down to 4 & 5%. However, that is what I get for thinking.
The first question asked by the Citi-Rep (named Alysa) was what is our annual income, and we told them right away, $32,000 per year. Instantly, the rep told us that Citi could not (or would not) lower our interest rate due to Citi's determination that we could "well afford" to pay the higher interest rate, and advised us to "just keep making the payments.!"
So, because we "make enough" to pay a higher interest we are stuck with paying a higher interest rate? Must we continue to pay 8 3/4% when the rest of the nation is paying no more than 5%? This doesnt sound right to me, but rather than argue with them I merely asked for a copy of "the note" that they supposedly held on our mortage. At first they acted like they didnt know what I was talking about and Alysa switched me over to another department. The gal there promiced that "the note" would be forthcoming in the mail. Today it came, and what a suprize it was, and I am left wondering.....
Since our mortgage was transfered to Citi without our knowledge or consent, and since we have never had any dealings or meetings with Citi, not even so much as the signing of any papers, even through the mail, how in the world did our signatures get on the copy of "the note" they sent us? Moreover, in the first paragraph under "BORROWERS PROMICE TO PAY, it says, "In return for a loan I have received, (it doesnt say from whom) I promice to pay X amount of dollars to the lender." Then, obviously added to the document as evidenced by a different typeset, was the added sentence: "The lender is CitiFinancial Mortgage Co."
Hummmmm. More investigation and research is needed here. The questions presented are: Are we really stuck with paying 8 3/4% interest, and can this "fudged" note be valid?
Well I dont know as I am by no means an expert in this area of law, but I am thinking it shouldnt take no high-fallootin' philidelphia lawyer to find out.
However, any input or comments by "those in the know" will definately make my research job easier and will be greatly appreciated.
Click on title above to go to the new web-blog I have created for ShitiFinancial Group;